Retreat of Islamic Empire and China

[Muloghonto]

50 minutes ago, Alam_dar said:

Due to several reasons, the EXCUSE of slavery in that particular era is not going to provide any defence to Islam, while:

 

(1) The very BASIC claim of Islam is this that Prophet Muhammad came with Islamic System (Sharia) whose "aim" was to remove all the Evils from the society. 

The claim goes further that Islamic System (Sharia) is "the Ideal" and "the Best" system for humanity. That is why Sharia laws could not be changed till Judgement day. 

 

(2) It is very clear that Prophet Muhammad and Islamic system totally failed in case of Slavery. Actually they legalized the slavery and thus slavery increased hundreds of folds during Islamic Caliphate. 

 

(3) As compared to Prophet Muhammad, we have Buddha (Goutam Budh) who brought the real "Revolution" against the slavery even 1100 years before Muhammad. 

When Ashoka (follower of Buddha) became ruler, he abolished the Bazars of Slavery in whole Hindustan, and this thing happened for the first time in the History of Mankind. 

 

Thus, due to the Buddhist preachings, there was almost no slavery in Hindustan for 800 years, till Muslims conquered India and they once again established the Bazar of slavery in India. 

 

What Allah and Prophet Muhammad were not even able to do that which Buddha and Ashoka did for humanity 1000 years before Islam. 

 

(4) Actually, Islam was not able to give even that much relief to the slaves that Bible (Jews/Christians) gave to the slaves 2500 years before prophet Muhammad. 

 

According to Islam, master could have "Temporary Sexual Relations" with the slave girl (just like "Mutta" of Shia Muslims which also has temporary sexual relations with a woman). In Islam, Master could rape her and after fulfilling his sexual hunger, simply sell her to another master, or to gift her to one of his brother so that they could rape her. 

 

While Jews/Christians also allow sex with the captive women, but bible stipulated that master should first give whole 30 days to her to weap for her father/brothers/sons who had been killed in the war. After that master has to "MARRY" the slave girl. And after the marriage, slave girl will be no more a slave but she will be considered as a wife and master could not sell her further. 

 

You see, Allah and Prophet Muhammad were not even able to provide that level of morality which was showed by the Jews even 2500 years ago.

 

Remember, Jews were living along with Muslims in the same city of Madina. So Muslims could in no way make a lame excuse that Allah/Muhammad treated slave women as others treated at that time. No, Allah/Muhammad/Islamic system/Sharia treated slave women much worse than the people of that time. 

 

 

(5) Now simple questions for the Muslims:

* Did Allah/Muhammad feared that Sahaba (i.e. companions of Muhammad) would have revolted against them if Sharia had asked that slave girls could also wear Hijab? 

If Allah/Muhammad didn't fear any such revolt from Sahaba, why then Islamic Sharia didn't allowed the slave girls to take Hijab and save themselves from the evil eyes of the men? 

 

* Similarly, did Allah/Muhammad feared that Sahaba would have revolted if Islam had stipulated that slave girls got the right to cover their naked breasts, and they could not be sold in the slave markets naked like sheep and cattle?

 

* Similarly, did Allah/Muhammad feared that Sahaba would have revolted if Islam made the Blood of slave life equal to the Free Muslim's life? 

Did Allah/Muhammad feared that Sahaba would have revolted if masters would have forbidden for masters to KILL their slaves if they run away? 

Did Allah/Muhammad feared that Sahaba would have revolted if Islam had forbidden the separation of slave mother and her 6 months old child by selling the child in the market?

 

Where there is a will, there is a way. 

 

Allah/Muhammad got all the POWER to abolish the slavery, or at least give other equal rights to the slaves. But they failed miserably. Actually they made conditions even worse for the slaves as compared to the contemporary conditions which existed among the Jewish tribes of Madina and Arabs.  

 

So, what was then the purpose of bringing Islamic System/Sharia, when it could not have brought any relieve to the slaves, but made their life more miserable?

 

Muslims have absolutely no answer to this question. 

Actually not to nitpick, but slavery (known as Das-attwa) was never prevalent in ancient India. There were rare cases of prisoners of war being enslaved but thats it, really.

Megasthenes, a Greek ambassador from Helmand region (back then known as Arachosia to the Greeks) visited Chandragupta Maurya's court around 300 BC, 30+ years before Ashoka's coronation and parts of his commentary about India survives - in it, he remarks with astonishment that Indians did not practice slavery.

 

As for rest of your questions- it becomes pretty obvious from reading the koran that the origin is from inside Mohammed's mind. That is why the Koran labels comets and shooting stars as streaks of fire to punish the devils and jinns, that sperm originates between a man's spine and pelvis, etc etc.
There are plenty of errors in the Koran of that type. Not to mention, the whole notion of a 'perfect book' in and of itself is a laughable concept that any 15 year old kid with bit of philosophical education can dismiss easily.