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Hijab is not a sign of Modesty, but the sign of Discrimination and Insult against the Slaves and Humanity


Alam_dar

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On 3/20/2019 at 4:43 PM, Alam_dar said:

@Mariyam

Well, I understand human sentiments and I know that it may hurt you to read about Hijab issue, and I don't want to hurt you in any way. 

Still I am curious to know how the Muslim WOMEN react about this issue of Hijab and nakedness of the slave girl in the Sharia. 

Therefore, if you think you could provide us with feedback without being offended or hurt, then I would be thankful. 

 

Aside of you in this thread, and in an earlier thread, I haven't come across the alleged issue of Hijab and nakedness of the slave girl in the Sharia. 

In your understanding, according to the Sharia, can a non Muslim lady wear the hijab? I have seen some maulvi sahebs gloat about stuff like that. If the Sharia says it is only for Muslim women, and not for slaves ( not sure what you mean by slaves here) , would the maulvis encourage this habit?

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2 hours ago, Mariyam said:

Aside of you in this thread, and in an earlier thread, I haven't come across the alleged issue of Hijab and nakedness of the slave girl in the Sharia. 

Yes exactly, this is the main problem. 

 

Quran, Hadith and all the early Ulama are UNANIMOUS upon the nakedness of slave women in Islam, but all the later coming Ulama of have hidden the true teachings of Islam so successfully that no one talks about that. 99% Muslims themselves don't know the real teachings. 

 

That is why I have always been asking people to bring this Truth to the light. People are making a blunder. They are debating with each other about Hijab and Modesty, while Hijab has nothing to do with the modesty. Instead of this, people should first know that Prophet Muhammad compelled the slave girls to move half naked in the markets, while Hijab was only the honour of the Free Muslim woman. 

 

Quote

In your understanding, according to the Sharia, can a non Muslim lady wear the hijab? I have seen some maulvi sahebs gloat about stuff like that. If the Sharia says it is only for Muslim women, and not for slaves ( not sure what you mean by slaves here) , would the maulvis encourage this habit?

Yes, first we have to tell the people (especially Muslims) what does slave mean. 

 

It is due to the reason that people (including Muslims) of this century have not seen the slaves any more, while British Empire abolished slavery from Indian Sub-Continent. And then in the mid of 20th century, it was abolished from the whole world. 

 

I brief, Islamic slavery means:

 

(1) It was obligatory upon the Islamic States to attack the neighbouring non-Muslim states in name of Jihad. After defeating the enemy, all the prisoners of wars (men, women, children) will become automatically slaves (even if they have no role in the war). 

The other sources of slavery were the slave markets in the neighbouring countries. 
And then comes the "Birth Slavery". All the children born to slave woman would automatically become slaves of the master. 

 

(2) Slaves had to obey all the orders of the masters, without any payment.  
Masters had the right to beat them or even kill them if they didn't obey the master. 

They got no right to a family (except that master agrees upon it and allow them to have a family). 

 

(3) Slave girls had to provide the master with the Sex Service (i.e. masters were allowed to rape them without their consent). 

Once master fulfilled his lust, then he presented the slave woman to his brother. And when all the brothers fulfilled their lust one by o, then they sell the slave woman to another master, and they bought for themselves a new and younger slave woman to fulfil their lust. 

 

I hope you know Sahih Bukhari and Sahih Muslim. These are the two most authentic Traditions book of Muslims. Let us see one reference from them:

 

Sahih Muslim (link) and Sahih Bukhari (link):

Abu Sa'id al Khadri said: We went out with Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) on the expedition to the Bi'l-Mustaliq and took captive some excellent Arab women; and we desired them, for we were suffering from the absence of our wives, (but at the same time) we also desired ransom for them (by selling them). So we decided to have sexual intercourse with them but by observing 'azl (Withdrawing the male sexual organ before emission of semen to avoid-conception so that they could good price while selling them to new master). But we said: We are doing an act whereas Allah's Messenger is amongst us; why not ask him? So we asked Allah's Mes- senger (ﷺ), and he said: (Yes, it is allowed, but) it does not matter if you do not do it, for every soul that is to be born up to the Day of Resurrection will be born.

 

(4) When the babies of the slave women got 2 teeth (around 6-8 months) then masters were allowed to separate the babies from their mother and to sell them in the market to get the money. 

 

(5) Little slave girls (of minor age) were bought and the Muslim men used those minor girls (of 5-6 years) for sexual pleasures. And even it was allowed to have sexual pleasures with 2 years baby too by making her naked and kissing her body, but penetration was not allowed due to the permanent harm to the babies. 
Here is the Quranic Verse about sexual pleasure (including penetration) with the minor girls who didn't yet menstruated. 

 

(Quran 65:4) And if you are in doubt about those of your women who have despaired of menstruation , (you should know that) their waiting period is three months, and the same applies to those (minor girls) who have not menstruated as yet.
Modoudi's Tafseer of verse 65:4 (link):
They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age, or delayed menstrual discharge as it happens in the case of some women, the waiting-period of such a woman is the same as of the woman, who has stopped menstruation, that is three months from the time divorce was pronounced.
Here, one should bear in mind the fact that according to the explanations given in the Qur'an the question of the waiting period arises in respect of the women with whom marriage may have been consummated, for there is no waiting-period in case divorce is pronounced before the consummation of marriage. (Al-Ahzab: 49). Therefore, making mention of the waiting-period for the girls who have not yet menstruated, clearly proves that it is not only permissible to give away the girl in marriage at this age but it is also pemssible for the husband to consummate marriage with her. Now, obviously no Muslim has the right to forbid a thing which the Qur'an has held as permissible.

 

Once it is clear for you what slave means, then we could move to the nakedness of the slaves girls in the next post. 

 

Please also tell me:

 

1. Can you read and understand Urdu?

2. Do you know about the 4 Fiqhs in Islam (Hanbali, Shafii, Maliki, Hanafi)?

3 Do you know famous commentators of Quran like Ibn Kathir and Qurtabi?

4. Do you know the famous Hadith books. 

 

I have to ask it while again 75% to 80% Muslims have no idea about them, but they follow the religion only traditionally. 

 

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6 hours ago, Aiden said:

What about Nuns covering their bodies and sarees exposing the tummies? Is that slave & discrimination mentality as well?

You are missing the point. Point being, Women are two types. Slave and Not Slave. Burqa being enforced upon non slaves while slaves are to show the skin. And reasons for it. Thats what we are discussing. 

 

Hindus India believed in Kamasutra :winky: . They didn’t cared about how to dress

Edited by mishra
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5 hours ago, Mariyam said:

@Alam_dar

The answer to all 4 questions is yes. Not an expert of any sort however.

Here are the proofs now by all 4 Fiqh Schools about the Sharia Ruling on the nakedness of a slave woman.

===

 

Muhammad Ammar Khan Nasir is very respected religious personality in Pakistan. You can read about him here. He wrote an essay about the "Nakedness" (Arabic: عورة 'Awrah) i.e. how much a slave woman has to cover her body. He presented the following proofs from 4 Fiqhs (link)

Hanafi Scholar Imam Jasas wrote (link):

يَجُوزُ لِلْأَجْنَبِيِّ النَّظَرُ إلَى شَعْرِ الْأَمَةِ وَذِرَاعِهَا وَسَاقِهَا وَصَدْرِهَا وَثَدْيِهَا
Translation:
A man could see the hairs, arms, calfs, chest and breasts of the slave woman of other person.

And it is written in the Book "Al-Sharh al-Saghir" of Maliki Fiqh (link):

فيرى الرجل من المرأة - إذا كانت أمة - أكثر مما ترى منه لأنها ترى منه الوجه والأطراف فقط، وهو يرى منها ما عدا ما بين السرة والركبة، لأن عورة الأمة مع كل واحد ما بين السرة والركبة - (الجزء الأول، ص 290.)
A man could see more of the body of a slave woman as compared to what she could see of a man. She is allowed only to see his hands and feet, while a man is allowed to see her whole body naked except for the part between her navel and knees.
And it is also the same ruling in the Fiqh of Imam Shafii too. See the book "Al-Madhab fi Fiqh al-Shafi'i (link):
المذهب أن عورتها ما بين السرة والركبة
Translation:
The 'Awrah (of a slave woman) is between here navel and knees.
Imam Qurtabi writes in his famous Tafsir of Quran, Verse 7:26 (Link):
وأما الأمة فالعورة منها ما تحت ثدييها ، ولها أن تبدي رأسها ومعصميها . وقيل : حكمها حكم الرجل”
Translation:
As far as slave woman is concerned, then here 'Awrah (i.e. Nakedness) is under her breasts, and she could expose here head and arms.
According to Hanafi Fiqh book "Fatawa-a-Alamgiri" (which was written by 500 Islamic Scholars at the orders of Emperor Aurangzeb Alamgir (link):
* It is allowed to see whole naked body of a slave woman of other person, except between her navel and the knees.
* And all that is allowed to be seen, it is also allowed to be touched (i.e. a man could touch the whole naked body of a slave woman of other person, except between her navel and the knees).
And Imam Abdul Razzaq recorded many traditions upon the 'Awrah (i.e. nakedness) of a slave woman in his books "al-Munsif". Some of these traditions are as under (link):
* Said ibn al-Musayyib said if one wants to buy a slave girl, then he could see whole of her body except for her lower private part (link).
* Shaabi also said the similar that he could see whole of her body naked except for lower private part (link).
* Fourth Caliph 'Ali was asked about seeing the calf, stomach and back of a slave woman. Upon that he replied there is no harm in seeing them while a slave woman has no honour. She is standing in the slave market for exactly this purpose that people could evaluate her price (by seeing and touching her) and then buy her (link).
* There are many traditions about Abdullah Ibn Umar (A prominent companion and son of 2nd Caliph) which tell that whenever he had to buy a slave girl, then he used to uncover her back, stomach and calfs. And he used to check her back, chest by putting his hands between her breasts (Links: 1st tradition, 2nd tradition). Saudi grand Mufti Albani declared this tradition to be "authentic" (link)
* Mujahid said that once Abdullah Ibn Umar came to a market where some traders wanted to buy a slave girl. Ibn Umar exposed her calfs, then put his hands between her breasts and shook them. Afterwards he told the traders to buy that slave girl as there was no defect in her (link)


 

Fiqh of Imam Ahmed bin Hanbal:

Kitab al-Kafi fi Fiqh al-Imam Ahmed (link):

وما يظهر دائماً من الأمة كالرأس واليدين إلى المرفقين والرجلين إلى الركبتين ليس بعورة ، لأن عمر رضي الله عنه نهى الأمة عن التقنع والتشبه بالحرائر ، قال القاضي في الجامع وما عدا ذلك عورة ، لأنه لا يظهر غالباً ، أشبه ما تحت السرة . وقال ابن حامد عورتها كعورة الرجل ، لما روى عمر بن شعيب عن أبيه عن جده أن النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم قال : إذا زوج أحدكم أمته عبده أو أجيره فلا ينظر إلى شيء من عورته فإن ما تحت السرة إلى الركبة عورة يريد عورة الأمة ، رواه الدارقطني . ولأنه من لم يكن رأسه عورة لم يكن صدره عورة ،

Translation:
What normally appears of the slave woman, like the head, the hands up to the elbows, and the feet up to the knees, it is not 'awrah, because 'Umar, radhiyallahu 'anhu, forbade the slave woman from covering her head (at-taqannu') and imitating the free women. Al-Qadhi said in "al-Jami'" that everything besides that (i.e. what is mentioned above) is 'awrah, because it is usually not exposed, similar to what is beneath the navel. Ibn Hamid said that her 'awrah is the same as the 'awrah of the man, because of what is narrated by 'Amr ibn Shu'ayb, from his father, from his grandfather, that the Prophet, sallallahu 'alayhi wa-sallam, said: "When one of you marries off his slave woman to his slave or hireling, let him not look at anything of her 'awrah, for whatever is below the navel until the knees is 'awrah." He meant the 'awrah of the slave woman. Narrated by ad-Daraqutni. Head is not included in the 'awrah of a slave woman as well as their breasts...

The Maliki Scholar Imam Ibn Abi Zayd (died 386 Hijri) wrote in his book "al-Jameh" (link):

"He (i.e. al-Imam Malik ibn Anas) strongly disapproved of the behaviour of the slave women of al-Madinah in going out uncovered above the lower garment (i.e with naked breasts). He said: "I have spoken to the Sultan about it, but I have not received a reply." (Reference: "Kitab al-Jami'" of al-Imam Ibn Abi Zayd al-Qayrawani al-Maliki)

Please also watch the video of Sheikh Hamza Yousuf (link) where he is telling that slave women used to walk outside with naked breasts.

 

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@Mariyam

 

Do you know the book "Fatawa-e-Alamgiri" (also knows as Fatawa-e-Hindiyyah"? 

It was written by 500 Scholars on the direct orders of Aurangzen Alamgir. A very authentic Fiqh book, which is taught in all Madaris in Indian Sub-Continent. 

Please see the direct image of from this book about the nakedness of slave women:

di_QFK6.jpg

 

Please click on this image 3 or 4 times, till this image becomes large enough to be read easily. 

Edited by Alam_dar
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