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Elections 23-24 NDA vs I.N.D.I.A (updated) -Poll Added

coffee_rules

By coffee_rules
in Chit Chat

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43 members have voted

  1. 1. Choose your prediction

    • BJP+ 400+
      1
    • BJP+ 350-400
      11
    • BJP+ 320-350
      4
    • BJP+ 300-320
      8
    • BJP+ 272-300
      12
    • Hung Parliament- Operation Lotus
      3
    • Hung Parliament- INDIA operation
      1
    • INDIA 272+
      0
    • Aayega to Modi hi - idc about numbers
      3
    • Poltics gayi bhad mein NRIs murdabad
      0

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coffee_rules Grand Master

coffee_rules

Posted
  • Author
Posted
4 hours ago, zubinpepsi said:

Did Modi really equate to all Muslims as jihadis?

why modi is only talking about religious appeasement.. 

what happened to his development?

It’s 2024 we are still talking about what congress did 40 yrs ago..  let’s move the fk on and show plans how he is going to get people out of poverty and how we reduce unemployment 

BJP has a choice to stand out from those INDIA looters.. but  unfortunately only religion is the main focus for them..:facepalm:

 

Nobody listens when he talked about development . All that opposition talked was end of democracy, dictatorship and Adami. So, he was forced to talk about how picking the alternative looks like. 

rish Veteran

rish

Posted
Posted
3 minutes ago, coffee_rules said:

Send us some research papers that made you gain your knowledge so we can also get enlightened .

He asked me to update my knowledge.I admit I could be wrong.I am asking for research papers on the out of india theory that says that indian language and culture was propagated outside till the pontic caspian steppes, that the horse was indigenous to india, that the PiE originated in India.

Muloghonto Grand Master

Muloghonto

Posted
Posted
38 minutes ago, rish said:

He asked me to update my knowledge.I admit I could be wrong.I am asking for research papers on the out of india theory that says that indian language and culture was propagated outside till the pontic caspian steppes, that the horse was indigenous to india, that the PiE originated in India.

Stop being dishonest. I didnt claim that horse is indegenous to India, nor did i claim OOI. 
I simply stated what the research paper stated - that PIE does NOT originate in central asia, it originates in Armenian highlands, that Indus valley civilisation is Indo-European speaking, not dravidian speaking. 
Rest is critique of your euro-propaganda nonsense about how vedic people were horse based pastoralists ( no evidence of that exists and counter-evidence, as ashwamedha- exists), that language = genetics, etc. 

 

 

rish Veteran

rish

Posted
Posted
3 minutes ago, Muloghonto said:

Stop being dishonest. I didnt claim that horse is indegenous to India, nor did i claim OOI. 
I simply stated what the research paper stated - that PIE does NOT originate in central asia, it originates in Armenian highlands, that Indus valley civilisation is Indo-European speaking, not dravidian speaking. 
Rest is critique of your euro-propaganda nonsense about how vedic people were horse based pastoralists ( no evidence of that exists and counter-evidence, as ashwamedha- exists), that language = genetics, etc. 

 

 

You are shifting goalpoalsts.The premise of the argument was whether early vedic civilization had elements of central asian influence.I said that it did because of the mention of horses, horse sacrifices and spoked chariots , cultural and language similarities and genetic evidence that indians carry nearly 15 percent of the aryan steppe dna in their admixture. 

What are you trying to disprove here?

 

rish Veteran

rish

Posted
Posted

Okay so I briefly read heggerty that you mentioned.

New insights from genetics and linguistics

The authors of the study therefore proposed a new hybrid hypothesis for the origin of the Indo-European languages, with an ultimate homeland south of the Caucasus and a subsequent branch northwards onto the Steppe, as a secondary homeland for some branches of Indo-European entering Europe with the later Yamnaya and Corded Ware-associated expansions. “Ancient DNA and language phylogenetics thus combine to suggest that the resolution to the 200-year-old Indo-European enigma lies in a hybrid of the farming and Steppe hypotheses”, remarked Gray

 

It simply reiterates what i have been saying that PIE didnt originate in India but somewhere in the Steppes or perhaps caucuses as this paper suggests.

 

 

coffee_rules Grand Master

coffee_rules

Posted
  • Author
Posted
1 hour ago, rish said:

He asked me to update my knowledge.I admit I could be wrong.I am asking for research papers on the out of india theory that says that indian language and culture was propagated outside till the pontic caspian steppes, that the horse was indigenous to india, that the PiE originated in India.

Do you know PIE is synthetic language created by linguists out of their wazoo? If not, I will not go further. 
 

Read about horse here:

https://www.archaeologyonline.net/artifacts/horse-debate

Muloghonto Grand Master

Muloghonto

Posted
Posted
59 minutes ago, rish said:

You are shifting goalpoalsts.

No.

 

59 minutes ago, rish said:

 

The premise of the argument was whether early vedic civilization had elements of central asian influence.

And proven by citing the most recent research on the topic, the answer is no.

59 minutes ago, rish said:

I said that it did because of the mention of horses, horse sacrifices and spoked chariots , cultural and language similarities and genetic evidence that indians carry nearly 15 percent of the aryan steppe dna in their admixture. 

What are you trying to disprove here?

 

You said wrong. There is no observed horse sacrifice ritual in ANY central asian culture for the last 3000 years we have record of. 
Genetic evidence is inadmissible in linguistics. 

Saying there is aryan DNA, is like saying there is Telegu DNA or bhojpuri DNA. nonsensical.

 

Indo Europeans, by your western master's theories, do not originate in the steppes of central Asia but in the Armenian highlands. CHECK heggarty et al 2023. 

 

 

Muloghonto Grand Master

Muloghonto

Posted
Posted
46 minutes ago, rish said:

Okay so I briefly read heggerty that you mentioned.

New insights from genetics and linguistics

The authors of the study therefore proposed a new hybrid hypothesis for the origin of the Indo-European languages, with an ultimate homeland south of the Caucasus and a subsequent branch northwards onto the Steppe, as a secondary homeland for some branches of Indo-European entering Europe with the later Yamnaya and Corded Ware-associated expansions. “Ancient DNA and language phylogenetics thus combine to suggest that the resolution to the 200-year-old Indo-European enigma lies in a hybrid of the farming and Steppe hypotheses”, remarked Gray

 

It simply reiterates what i have been saying that PIE didnt originate in India but somewhere in the Steppes or perhaps caucuses as this paper suggests.

 

 

 

It does not reiterate that PIE originates i the steppes. it clear cut puts the case that PIE originates in Armenian highlands. 

Those who migrated to the steppes, migrated into Europe. The migration into India happened via the southern route, aka the reverse of the route followed by gypsies. 

 

rish Veteran

rish

Posted
Posted
3 minutes ago, Muloghonto said:

No.

 

And proven by citing the most recent research on the topic, the answer is no.

You said wrong. There is no observed horse sacrifice ritual in ANY central asian culture for the last 3000 years we have record of. 
Genetic evidence is inadmissible in linguistics. 

Saying there is aryan DNA, is like saying there is Telegu DNA or bhojpuri DNA. nonsensical.

 

Indo Europeans, by your western master's theories, do not originate in the steppes of central Asia but in the Armenian highlands. CHECK heggarty et al 2023. 

 

 

Sinthastha culture shows horse heads sacrificed as part of rituals.In fact it is fairly common.

rish Veteran

rish

Posted
Posted
3 minutes ago, Muloghonto said:

 

It does not reiterate that PIE originates i the steppes. it clear cut puts the case that PIE originates in Armenian highlands. 

Those who migrated to the steppes, migrated into Europe. The migration into India happened via the southern route, aka the reverse of the route followed by gypsies. 

 

And how does this claim support the out of india theory?

rish Veteran

rish

Posted
Posted
21 minutes ago, coffee_rules said:

Do you know PIE is synthetic language created by linguists out of their wazoo? If not, I will not go further. 
 

Read about horse here:

https://www.archaeologyonline.net/artifacts/horse-debate

So what are you trying to prove here? That all these languages were similar but each evolved on its own?that there was no common language ? Or whether they evolved in India and spread out?

Muloghonto Grand Master

Muloghonto

Posted
Posted
41 minutes ago, rish said:

Sinthastha culture shows horse heads sacrificed as part of rituals.In fact it is fairly common.

Its got 2 samples. In the entire history of the last 3000+ years of steppe history. And its not even proven that it was a ritual sacrifice as opposed to consumption for food. dont make up ****. Show me a single horse sacrifice in mongols, turks, alans, sarmatians and ANY single steppe culture in written history. 

40 minutes ago, rish said:

So what are you trying to prove here? That all these languages were similar but each evolved on its own?that there was no common language ? Or whether they evolved in India and spread out?

 

That Aryans didnt come from the steppes. Duh. And that Indo-Aryan language developed in India itself after arrival of PIE in India via the Armenia-Iran-Afghanistan route south of Hindukush.

 

coffee_rules Grand Master

coffee_rules

Posted
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Posted (edited)

Back to elections..

Read this story. 

 

 

Edited by coffee_rules
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